Excerpts from a blog by By Michael E. Stone (his source: Israeli Foreign Ministry):
“All the Apocrypha and most of the Pseudepigrapha are Jewish works (some contain Christianizing additions). They
provide essential evidence of Jewish literature and thought during the
period between the end of biblical writing (ca. 400 BCE) and the
beginning of substantial rabbinic literature in the latter part of the
first century CE.”
“Most of these works were written in the Land of Israel, in Aramaic or Hebrew. However, some of them, such as The Wisdom of Solomon, were written in Greek. These Jewish Greek writings were produced in the widespread Jewish Diaspora of the time, mainly in Egypt (Alexandria) and in North Africa. Although
most of the Hebrew and Aramaic texts have been lost over the centuries,
many of them, translated into Greek or Oriental Christian languages
(such as Ethiopic, Syriac or Armenian) have been found.”
More excerpts:“Scholarly interest was renewed after the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls in 1947. In the eleven caves near Qumran north-west of the Dead Sea, parts of more than 700 ancient Jewish manuscripts were discovered. These had been written in the same period as the Apocrypha and Pseudepigrapha, mostly in Hebrew, with a lesser number in Aramaic and even fewer in Greek. The Dead Sea Scrolls, as they came to be known, are assumed to have been the library of a sectarian community at Qumran. The scrolls survived the Roman ravaging of Judea in the years 68-70 CE, because they were hidden in caves. They have been a major focus of scholarly and general interest for the last half-century.
Among the Dead Sea Scrolls were a number of manuscripts of the Apocrypha and Pseudepigrapha,…”
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The Apochrypa found in the dead sea scrolls were not purely Hebrew bec originally some were greek, so as the author revealed. The letter to jeremiah is greek, but actually, it was specified in the Apochrypa books that indeed majority were originally greek. There is no documentary proof that Apochrypa is purely Hebrew.
What do I want to prove?
That my first post about the old testament as must be written in Hebrew still stands. It must be that all old testament scriptures must be in Hebrew bec they were writing it to Jews. Majority were Hebrew speaking citizens therefore god must send his letter in Hebrew to cater to them all bec they never lost their Hebrew language even during the diaspora wherein they were captives in Babylon, and was Hellenized. Biblical evidences show that they never lost their Hebrew language.
Christ used Hebrew.
Mt 27:46 “And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?”
Hebrew was prevalent then as greek and Latin.
Lk 23:38 “And a superscription also was written over him in letters of Greek, and Latin, and Hebrew, THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS.”
Ac 26:14 “And when we were all fallen to the earth, I heard a voice speaking unto me, and saying in the Hebrew tongue, Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? [it is] hard for thee to kick against the pricks.”
Re 9:11 “And they had a king over them, [which is] the angel of the bottomless pit, whose name in the Hebrew tongue [is] Abaddon, but in the Greek tongue hath [his] name Apollyon.”
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The Jewish Diaspora began with the exile of Judeans to Babylonia by Nebuchadnezzar in 586 bc. The majority of Judeans remained in Babylonia even after the refounding of Jerusalem. Under Hellenistic rulers, large numbers of Jews settled in Alexandria, Egypt.
Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved.
An excerpt:
“All the Apocrypha and most of the Pseudepigrapha are Jewish works (some contain Christianizing additions). They provide essential evidence of Jewish literature and thought during the period between the end of biblical writing (ca. 400 BCE) and the beginning of substantial rabbinic literature in the latter part of the first century CE.”
_________________________________
The diaspora begun 586 BC.
Biblical writing of the Old Testament allegedly ends 400 BCE. Even then Hebrew language was the only prophets’ writing medium.
As a matter of fact Daniel was among those who were in the diaspora but he wrote his book in Hebrew which nullifies the reason that bec they were Hellenize, they must somehow wrote in Greek. As I said, it must be that ALL the old testament canons be originally written in Hebrew for it to be canonical bec how about the Israelites who never known Greek. Though they were Hellenized but thru the long years span til Christ it doesn’t imply a perpetual Greek language adherence. It got lost with some descendants of course, and as a matter of fact, the masoretes reformed the original Hebrew copies of the bible which were then pure consonant texts into voweled Hebrew texts called the masoretic text which means that indeed the Israelites retained their Hebrew language even with the influence of the greek culture. They can still read Hebrew, the renewed Hebrew language, that is, supplied with vowels-THE MASORETIC TEXTS.
As proof, the dead sea scrolls contained some of these Masoretic texts either dating from 250 BC-68 AD.
| by | Garry K. Brantley, M.A., M.Div. |
“When the scrolls first were discovered in 1947, scholars disputed their dates of composition. Scholars now generally agree that although some materials are earlier,
the Qumran materials date primarily to the Hasmonean (152-63 B.C.) and early Roman periods (63 B.C.-A.D. 68). Several strands of evidence corroborate these conclusions.
First, archaeological evidence
from the ruins of the Qumran community supports these dates. After six
major seasons of excavations, archaeologists have identified three
specific phases of occupation at the ancient center of Qumran. Coinage
discovered in the first stratum dates from the reign of Antiochus VII
Sidetes (138-129 B.C.). Such artifacts also indicate that the
architecture associated with the second occupational phase dates no
later than the time of Alexander Jannaeus (103-76 B.C.). Also reflected
in the material remains of the site is the destruction of its buildings
in the earthquake reported by the first-century Jewish historian,
Josephus (Antiquities of the Jews, 15.5.2). Apparently, this
natural disaster occurred around 31 B.C. a position that prompted the
occupants to abandon the site for an indeterminate time. Upon
reoccupation of the area—the third phase—the buildings were repaired and
rebuilt precisely on the previous plan of the old communal complex. The
community flourished until the Romans, under the military direction of
Vespasian, occupied the site by force (see Cross, 1992, pp. 21-22). Such
evidence is consistent with the second century B.C. to first-century
A.D. dates for the scrolls.
This is the method by which scholars determine the date of a text on palaeographical grounds. According to this technique, the scripts at Qumran belong to three periods of palaeographical development: (1) a small group of biblical texts whose archaic style reflects the period between about 250-150 B.C.; (2) a large cache of manuscripts, both biblical and non-biblical, that is consistent with a writing style common to the Hasmonean period (c. 150-30 B.C.); and (3) a similarly large number of texts that evinces a writing style characteristic of the Herodian period (30 B.C.-A.D. 70). This linguistic information also is consistent with the commonly accepted dates of the Qumran materials.”
“This second point is of
particular importance since, prior to the discovery of the Qumran
manuscripts, the earliest extant Old Testament texts were those known as
the Masoretic Text (MT), which dated from about A.D. 980. The Masoretic
Text is the result of editorial work performed by Jewish scribes known
as the Masoretes. The scribes’ designation was derived from the Hebrew
word masora, which refers collectively to the notes entered on
the top, bottom, and side margins of the Masoretic Text manuscripts to
safeguard traditional transmission. Hence, the Masoretes, as their name
suggests, were the scribal preservers of the masora (Roberts,
1962, 3:295). From the fifth to the ninth century A.D., the Masoretes
labored to introduce both these marginal notes and vowel points to the
consonantal text—primarily to conserve correct pronunciation and
spelling (see Seow, 1987, pp. 8-9).
Critical scholars questioned the accuracy of the MASORETIC TEXT, which formed the basis of our English versions of the Old Testament, since there was such a large chronological gap between it and the autographs. Because of this uncertainty, scholars often “corrected” the text with considerable freedom.
Qumran, however, has provided remains of an early Masoretic edition predating the Christian era on which the traditional Masoretic Text is based. A comparison of the Masoretic Text to this earlier text revealed the remarkable accuracy with which scribes copied the sacred texts. Accordingly, the integrity of the Hebrew Bible was confirmed, which generally has heightened its respect among scholars and drastically reduced textual alteration.
Most of the biblical manuscripts found at Qumran belong to the MASORETIC TEXT tradition or family. This is especially true of the Pentateuch and some of the Prophets.”
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NO OLD TESTAMENT PROPHET EVER USED GREEK. BIBLICAL SCROLLS OF THE MASORETES ARE HEBREW.
But of course, catholic apologists will ask, what proof do you have mr. yogi that old testament books must all be written in Hebrew? Even if the masoretic bible is Hebrew but what proof is there that it is requisite for prophets to write in Hebrew only?
Prophets had been using the Hebrew language in relaying God’s messages.
An example:
Ezk 3:4 “And he said unto me, Son of man, go, get thee unto the house of Israel, and speak with my words unto them.
Ezk 3:5 For thou [art] not sent to a people of a strange speech and of an hard language, [but] to the house of Israel;
Ezk 3:6 Not to many people of a strange speech and of an hard language, whose words thou canst not understand. Surely, had I sent thee to them, they would have hearkened unto thee.
Ezk 3:7 But the house of Israel will not hearken unto thee; for they will not hearken unto me: for all the house of Israel [are] impudent and hardhearted.”
For thou [art] not sent to a people of a strange speech and of an hard language, [but] to the house of Israel
But some hard smarts may insist, but does that prohibit the use of greek?
GOD ONLY SPOKE TO PROPHETS.
Num 12:6 “And he said, Hear now my words: If there be a prophet among you, [I] the LORD will make myself known unto him in a vision, [and] will speak unto him in a dream.”
Am 3:7 “Surely the Lord GOD will do nothing, but he revealeth his secret unto his servants the prophets.”
ONLY PROPHETS WERE OLD TESTAMENT SPEAKERS OF GOD. ONLY PROPHETS THEREFORE WERE CREDITED THE OLD TESTAMENT WRITINGS. EVEN THE HISTORICAL ACCOUNTS WERE BY PROPHETS.
Hb 1:1 “God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
Hb 1:2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;”
in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son
Dn 9:10 “Neither have we obeyed the voice of the LORD our God, to walk in his laws, which he set before us by his servants the prophets.”
the voice of the LORD our God which he set before us by his servants the prophets
Jer 26:4 “And thou shalt say unto them, Thus saith the LORD; If ye will not hearken to me, to walk in my law, which I have set before you,
Jer 26:5 To hearken to the words of my servants the prophets, whom I sent unto you, both rising up early, and sending [them], but ye have not hearkened;”
If ye will not hearken to me, to walk in my law, which I have set before you,
To hearken to the words of my servants the prophets, whom I sent unto you
All those commanded to speak to Israel then were prophets. Nothing more, nothing less. Being prophets, they were the only spokesperson of god til Christ and as we see, all old testament writings by prophets were in Hebrew, this alone proves that indeed god relayed his messages to all Israel in Hebrew. It was never in greek.
NO OLD TESTAMENT PROPHET EVER USED GREEK.
In contrary, the apochrypa included in itself writings by non-prophets as the book of Sirach, Judith, Baruch and spurious Daniel writings as bel and the dragon, the book of suzanna etc… and most of them in Greek.
We must first establish that all scriptures inspired, are those pure words of God.
2Ti 3:16 “All scripture [is]
given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for
reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:”
If Apochrypa is scriptures or inspired scriptures, meaning, the words
of God, then it must have been written to us by prophets onlly prophets
were the one given privilege to speak for god.Hb 1:1 “God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,”
Fathers means Israel’s forefathers.
Ro 9:4 “Who are Israelites; to whom [pertaineth] the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service [of God], and the promises;
Ro 9:5 Who (greek “hon”: who) are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ [came], who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.”
The fathers are those also to whom Isaiah spoke to also, meaning, Israel in old testament times.
Ac 28:25 “And when they agreed not among themselves, they departed, after that Paul had spoken one word, Well spake the Holy Ghost by Esaias the prophet unto our fathers,
Ac 28:26 Saying, Go unto this people, and say, Hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and not perceive:”
Ac 7:52 “Which of the prophets have not your fathers persecuted? and they have slain them which shewed before of the coming of the Just One; of whom ye have been now the betrayers and murderers:”
God have been using only prophets in communicating to Israel in the past. And Apochrypa were not by prophets at all so how can Apochrypa belong to old testament’s only prophets writings then? TO QUALIFY AS PROPHETS OF GOD, THEY MUST FIRSTLY SPEAK NO ERROR, AND SECONDLY, THEY MUST SOMEHOW HAVE SPOKEN OF CHRIST.
Now, is apochrypa’s Sirach, Judith etc… by prophets?
It’s not.
Sirach is just a translator. He translated his grandfather’s works of allegedly biblical wisdom from moses’ law and other biblical canons.
SIRACH’S FOREWORD:
“Anyone who values learning should be able to help others by what he himself says and writes. That is why my grandfather Jesus devoted himself to reading the Law, the prophets, and the other books of our ancestors. After he had mastered them, he was led to write a book of his own inorder to share his wisdom and learning with others.
Let me urge you then to read this book carefully and with an open mind. And please be patient in those places where, inspite of all my diligent efforts, I may not have translated some phrases very well.”
SIRACH’S GRANDFATHER ADMITTED HE IS NOT A PROPHET.
SIRACH 24:32-33 “and so I present you with my learning, I hold it high, so that its light can be seen everywhere like that of a rising sun. LIKE AN INSPIRED PROPHET I POUR OUT MY TEACHINGS.”
LIKE AN INSPIRED PROPHET is not a prophet.
This sole admission compromised the integral apochrypa false, bec as the bible said, god only spoke to Israel by no one else but prophets.
Hb 1:1 “God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
Hb 1:2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;”
in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
Dn 9:10 “Neither have we obeyed the voice of the LORD our God, to walk in his laws, which he set before us by his servants the prophets.”
the voice of the LORD our God which he set before us by his servants the prophets
Baruch likewise is not a prophet
but the secretary of prophet jeremiah. So how will his book be
qualified as canonical when he was not a prophet?
what?
It is still canonical?
Moreover, not all apochrypa’s writers prophesied of this: Jesus Christ.
Ac 3:20 “And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you:
Ac 3:21 Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began.”
Jesus Christ, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets
by the mouth of “ALL” his holy prophets
Did Tobit spoke a single verse about Christ?
He did. he spoke of the church built by God in Jerusalem. As Christians know, Christ and the church are one so Tobit had indeed spoke indirectly of Christ.
He did. he spoke of the church built by God in Jerusalem. As Christians know, Christ and the church are one so Tobit had indeed spoke indirectly of Christ.
But then, he failed in this other aspect, he spoke contradictions with the truth.
TOBIT 4:17 “when one of god’s faithful people has died, prepare food for the family BUT NEVER DO THIS WHEN SOMEONE EVIL DIES.”
It says, not to prepare foods to families, as wife or husband and children of an evil person. Does god complies with it? Do children bear the iniquity of their parents to be included with the consequences of their parents’ evil?
Ezk 18:20 “The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.”
As you all know, even if a person is evil it doesn’t mean his wife and children are likewise. What if these families are righteous, will god forsake them? If god won’t forsake them then Tobit is lying when he said of not showing this specific goodness as preparing food to an evil person’s families.
Ro 11:22 “Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in [his] goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.”
but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in [his] goodness
That’s god’s assurance. Actually, god contradicted Tobit in many ways.
Ga 6:10 “As we have therefore opportunity, let us do good unto all [men], especially unto them who are of the household of faith.”
let us do good unto all [men]
They might stubbornly say, Tobit’s doctrine is the exception, we must not do this specific good to them, that is, preparing food for an evil person’s families.
If that is the case, then god contradicted himself.
Ho 2:19 “And I will betroth thee unto me for ever; yea, I will betroth thee unto me in righteousness, and in judgment, and in lovingkindness, and in mercies.
Ho 2:20 I will even betroth thee unto me in faithfulness: and thou shalt know the LORD.”
I will betroth thee unto me in righteousness, and in judgment, and in lovingkindness, and in mercies
Let’s quote god’s assurance again.
Ro 11:22 “Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in [his] goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.”
but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in [his] goodness
compare:
TOBIT 4:17 “when one of god’s faithful people has died, prepare food for the family BUT NEVER DO THIS WHEN SOMEONE EVIL DIES.”
Another one,
TOBIT 1:8-10 “it is better to pray sincerely and to please god by helping the poor than to be rich and dishonest. it is better to give to the poor than to store up gold. SUCH GENEROSITY WILL SAVE YOU FROM DEATH AND WILL WASH AWAY ALL YOUR SINS. Those who gives to the poor will live full lives but those who live a life of sin and wickedness are their own worst enemies.”
Generosity done in faith will wash away all sins? Not so in the Christian dispensation. To say that generosity while you also pray to god will wash away all your sins is paradox statement bec mortal sins done by a believer merits unforgiveness, it can’t anymore be washed, even if you pray and give to the poor to please god.
Hb 6:4 “For [it is] impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted of the heavenly gift, and were made partakers of the Holy Ghost,
Hb 6:5 And have tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the world to come,
Hb 6:6 If they shall fall away, to renew them again unto repentance; seeing they crucify to themselves the Son of God afresh, and put [him] to an open shame.”
Mortal sins and wickedness, as Tobit was referring to it, is forgivable by generosity, is a lie.
For [it is] impossible for those who were once enlightened If they shall fall away
to renew them again unto repentance,
Hb 10:26 “For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins,”
there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins
This means, Christ will not again be sacrificed and shed his blood the 2nd time for the remission of your sins, meaning, no 2nd washing of mortal sins after receiving the knowledge of truth.
Hb 9:22 “And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission.”
Understand this:
and without shedding of blood is no remission- (this is Christ’s sacrifice in the cross.)
For if we sin willfully… there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins
compare to Tobit:
SUCH GENEROSITY WILL SAVE YOU FROM DEATH AND WILL WASH AWAY ALL YOUR SINS
On another thing,
Though Tobit indirectly spoke of Christ but on the contrary, Judith never spoke a thing about it or at least hinted about it. The book of Judith is not by a known prophet also. It is a war documentary but lacked the prophetic aspect about Christ therefore a false canon.
Ac 3:20 “And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you:
Ac 3:21 Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began.”
Jesus Christ, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets
by the mouth of “ALL” his holy prophets
In all these qualifiers, how to know Old Testament canons, Apochrypa failed. Did apochrypa’s writers all spoke of Christ? No, they didn’t therefore they failed to qualify as true biblical canons.
The four qualifiers. (sorry for being redundant, this is for the knuckleheads!)
Old Testament canons must be written by prophets.
Hb 1:1 “God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
Hb 1:2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;”
in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
Dn 9:10 “Neither have we obeyed the voice of the LORD our God, to walk in his laws, which he set before us by his servants the prophets.”
the voice of the LORD our God which he set before us by his servants the prophets
Jer 26:4 “And thou shalt say unto them, Thus saith the LORD; If ye will not hearken to me, to walk in my law, which I have set before you,
Jer 26:5 To hearken to the words of my servants the prophets, whom I sent unto you, both rising up early, and sending [them], but ye have not hearkened;”
If ye will not hearken to me, to walk in my law, which I have set before you,
To hearken to the words of my servants the prophets, whom I sent unto you
whom I sent unto you
It must have no contradiction with the other books.
2C 6:14 “Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what participation hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath light with darkness?”
for what participation hath righteousness with unrighteousness
It must be gathered with the book of the lord.
Isa 34:16 “Seek ye out of the book of the LORD, and read: no one of these shall fail, none shall want her mate: for my mouth it hath commanded, and his spirit it hath gathered them.”
the book of the LORD… his spirit it hath gathered them
Lastly, it must speak about Christ in one way or the other.
Ac 3:20 “And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you:
Ac 3:21 Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began.”
Jesus Christ, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets
by the mouth of “ALL” his holy prophets
ALL PROPHETS OF GOD MUST SPEAKS OF CHRIST. This last qualifier is the sign of true prophethood also. Jonah is an exception of it though, he never talks about Christ but only prophesied to non-people of god, Nineveh, therefore is not a prophet speaking about the future of the people of god but specifically, to non-people of god. He was not an appropriate prophet to the people of God, therefore he would not speak anything concerning their future including Christ.
But they said Christ referred to the Apochrypa in some of his teachings therefore it qualifies as scriptures. Is that true?
Let’s check if indeed Christ has ever made any reference to any parts of the apochrypa.
an example:
Christ was allegedly quoting this:
TOBIT 4:15 “NEVER DO TO ANYONE ELSE ANYTHING THAT YOU WOULD NOT WANT SOMEONE DO TO YOU.”
Christ preached:
Mt 7:12 “Therefore all things whatsoever ye would that men should do to you, do ye even so to them: for this is the law and the prophets.”
Having that, did Christ ever refer to Tobit when he preached that certain doctrine, or he summarized the integral mosaic teachings and the prophets into one. Notice the verse: for this is the law and the prophets!
Perhaps Tobit invented his doctrine himself bec it was differently spoken with Christ. Christ said in the positive, DO UNTO OTHERS AS YOU WANT OTHERS TO DO UNTO YOU, whereas Tobit spoke in the negative, DON’T DO UNTO OTHERS WHAT YOU WANT OTHERS TO DO UNTO YOU. A clear huge difference of proverbial essence is it not? Now tell me, do you think you are now right with your other assumptions when you are wrong in this certain aspect? I’ll disprove you anyway.
Next post: more on the alleged christ’s quotation from apochrypa.
CONCLUSION: APOCHRYPA WAS NOT BY PROPHETS OF GOD BEC APOCHRYPAL WRITERS ARE PLAIN LIARS! THEY CONTRADICTED GOD IN SO MANY WAYS!
What kind of Israelites claimed that apochrypa is also of god?
Jer 8:5 “Why [then] is this people of Jerusalem slidden back by a perpetual backsliding? they hold fast deceit, they refuse to return.
Jer 8:6 I hearkened and heard, [but] they spake not aright: no man repented him of his wickedness, saying, What have I done? every one turned to his course, as the horse rusheth into the battle.
Jer 8:8 How do ye say, We [are] wise, and the law of the LORD [is] with us? Lo, certainly in vain made he [it]; the pen of the scribes is falsehood.”
[but] they spake not aright: no man repented him of his wickedness
God said to these wicked liar-jews:
How do ye say, We [are] wise, and the law of the LORD [is] with us? Lo, certainly in vain made he [it]; the pen of the scribes is falsehood
GOD SOMEHOW IMPLIED: THE PEN OF APOCHRYPA’S SCRIBES IS FALSEHOOD!Clearly, apochrypa is an imposition not by god or by god inspired men but simply by the figment of lying minds or influence.
Clear?
Lastly,
I took this from another blogger.
“Why did the Catholic church accept them as canonical?
In a nutshell, the Roman Catholic church has never had any biblical
support for its teachings such as purgatory, prayers for the dead, works
for salvation, etc. The events of the Reformation brought the Roman
Catholic heresies into question and they had not scriptural authority
for teachings. However, these false teachings are found in the
Apocryphal books, so the Council of Trent in 1546, canonized them
proclaiming them to be “sacred” books. This ruse gave them support for
there erroneous teachings. It is always the clear mark of a cult or
false church to add extra biblical revelations to the Bible in order to
seek to justify their false teachings. Historically, the Roman Catholic
church did not accept these books for the first 1300 years of their
history. Clearly, the reason they changed their position was that during
the Reformation the teachings of Catholicism came under scrutiny by
people who were studying God’s word, they could find no mention in the
Bible of a place called Purgatory, prayers for the dead, paying of
indulgences and other practices of the Roman church.”
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